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Yes, thank you so much. It helps tremendously.
Another question regarding past/present/future tense of words!
Mat 16:28 Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom.
This is sort of a twofold question.
Can the sentence structure in the above verse be pointing to the actual folks standing there at that time?
Must the sentence structure in the above verse be pointing to the actual folks standing there at that time?
Or maybe a better way to put it is:
Is the verse directly referring to some standing in that very spot at the present time; or is it saying that there will be some standing in that very spot at some time?
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It is definitely "some of those who have been currently, at this present time, standing here in this very spot." There is no way to make this a continuing reference to others who may stand here in the future, as the participle ("having stood") has completed aspect (indicating the standing is finished, it is a completed action), while the time given by the main verb is present time ("they are").
There is no doubt about the fact that Jesus was referencing the people standing before Him at that very moment. He is saying, some of you standing here will not die before you see my kingdom established here on earth.
However, contrary to popular opinion, He is NOT referencing the second coming, but the culminating events of the first coming: the resurrection and the pouring out of the Holy Spirit. Jesus calls kingdom of God that He establishes with His death and resurrection "my kingdom." In other words, Jesus' kingdom made salvation available to all of mankind, started the age of grace, and began the church.
Jesus does NOT call the second coming "my kingdom," but rather, "My Father's kingdom."
- Matthew 26:29 "But I say to you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it new with you in My Father's kingdom."
Luke 11:2 And He said to them, "When you pray, say: 'Father, hallowed be Your name. Your kingdom come.
Jesus' kingdom defeats sin and eternal death by making salvation available to all of mankind, starting the church, and beginning the age of grace. The Father's Kingdom finally stomps out sin once and for all, defeats PHYSICAL death, and returns the creation to the sinless state that it was in at the garden of Eden.
BOTH kingdoms are also called "the Kingdom of God" and "the Kingdom of Heaven." So the first "Kingdom of God" is Jesus' Kingdom, and we are living in that one right now. References to the Kingdom of God that are clearly about a believer being in a state of salvation, or about where a saved person goes after death are references to Jesus' Kingdom.
The second "Kingdom of God" is the Father's Kingdom, and that one will be established at the second coming. References to the Kingdom of God were sin will be completely wiped out and the wicked judged is the Father's Kingdom.
Jesus' Kingdom does not END when the Father's Kingdom starts, it continues on forever (since salvation is eternal). Furthermore, the Father grants His kingdom to Jesus and places Him on the throne of David in His Kingdom, so you could say that Jesus rules BOTH kingdoms (or both eventually become His kingdom).
Let me know if you have more questions.
Grace and peace to you,
Rhomphaia